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Before I ask my question let me point out that I do believe in God (Deist) but I’m having problems with the Christian view of hellfire. Now I do understand that God gave us free will to do what we want to do, and also believe that free will and God’s knowledge do not conflict. BUT in the same time God is omniscient. So He knows every single thing in this world, big or small, good or bad, and of course He knows the past, future and present. That means the time God creates a human He already knows what choice would this person make, without forcing him to choose anything, and He knows that when He makes this person he will make a bad choice, subsequently leadig him to hell. So God knew that this person will eventually go to hell, but nevertheless made him. I’m not implying that God could make mistakes, as I believe He knows exactly what’s He doing, but the fact that made people who He is certain will make bad choices and go to hell, and this contradicts with the fact that God is merciful
Still, no one answered my question…
Again, these questions are for people who know how to read and think – In other words, for a slim minority from among you…
When a skeptic asks how evil can exist, much less persist in the face of an all powerful and all-knowing, and perfectly good God (The Theodicy Problem), [or the inverse – how God can exist, when evil exists], the theist must respond that evil is the recourse of free will, which demonstrates God’s perfect love.
I believe I can sum up the whole of the Christian’s argument thusly:
God valued moral autonomy so highly that he created humans (and Satan – Some Christians believe this to be fallen Lucifer) in spite of knowing that they would choose evil. But the central thing to note is that it was Adam and Eve who voluntarily choose to sin, and God would have desired that they freely would have chosen good. Hence, God is not to blame for the emergence of evil in the human race.
Basically, God was saying to Adam and Eve, “either obey me and live in perfect harmony or disobey me and bring about disharmony.”
But there’s this thing called, “The Doctrine of Original Sin,” which holds that all humans after A&E did not face a neutral choice, but were born with a sinful nature, which FORCES them to sin (be unacceptable) – according to the Bible:
2 Cor 6:36/Ps 51:5/Prov 20:9/Ecc7:20/John 3:6/Rom 3:10-12/Rom 3:23/Rom 5:12-18/Rom 7:14/I John 8-10
Clearly, the free-will possessed by Adam and Eve is NOT the free will possessed by their descendants.
This begs the question: Does the God ordained/planned consequence of a sinful nature, via free will, increase the amount of sin committed by humans?
A sin without volition (will) is a slap at morality and an insolent contradiction in terms: that which is outside the possibility of choice is outside the province of morality.
If man is evil by birth, he has no will, no power to change it; if he has no will, he can be neither good nor evil, only an immoral robot.
To hold as man’s sin, a fact not open to his choice, is a mockery of whatever ‘morality’ should mean. To hold man’s nature as his sin is a mockery of nature. To punish him for a crime he committed before he was born is a mockery of justice. To hold him guilty in a matter where no innocence exists is a mockery of reason.
To destroy morality, nature, justice and reason by means of a single concept is a feat of evil hardly to be matched. Yet that is the root of the Christian code.
Christians egregiously hide behind the cowardly evasion that man is born with free will, but with a ‘tendency’ to evil.
A free will saddled with a tendency is like a game with loaded dice. It forces man to struggle through the effort of playing, to bear responsibility and pay for the game, but the decision is weighted in favor of a tendency that he had no power to escape.
If the tendency is of his choice, he cannot possess it at birth; if it is not of his choice, his will is not free.
And remember, this tendency was inherited, not assumed, like in the case of Adam and Eve. A&E opened up a veritable “Pandora’s Box” which was given directly to them by God Himself.
Further, knowing all the evils waiting within the hearts of men born and unborn – knowing full-well that men would “tend” to be evil- knowing that one day, God would have to destroy every living thing on Earth with a flood and “repent of ever making mankind” (Genesis 6:6)…
WHY DID GOD COMMAND EVIL MEN TO BE FRUITFUL AND MULTIPLY?
When a skeptic asks how evil can exist, much less persist in the face of an all powerful and all-knowing, and perfectly good God (The Theodicy Problem), [or the inverse – how God can exist, when evil exists], the theist must respond that evil is the recourse of free will, which demonstrates God’s perfect love.
I believe I can sum up the whole of the Christian’s argument thusly:
God valued moral autonomy so highly that he created humans (and Satan – Some Christians believe this to be fallen Lucifer) in spite of knowing that they would choose evil. But the central thing to note is that it was Adam and Eve who voluntarily choose to sin, and God would have desired that they freely would have chosen good. Hence, God is not to blame for the emergence of evil in the human race.
Basically, God was saying to Adam and Eve, “either obey me and live in perfect harmony or disobey me and bring about disharmony.”
But there’s this thing called, “The Doctrine of Original Sin,” which holds that all humans after A&E did not face a neutral choice, but were born with a sinful nature, which FORCES them to sin (be unacceptable) – according to the Bible:
2 Cor 6:36/Ps 51:5/Prov 20:9/Ecc7:20/John 3:6/Rom 3:10-12/Rom 3:23/Rom 5:12-18/Rom 7:14/I John 8-10
Clearly, the free-will possessed by Adam and Eve is NOT the free will possessed by their descendants.
This begs the question: Does the God ordained/planned consequence of a sinful nature, via free will, increase the amount of sin committed by humans?
A sin without volition (will) is a slap at morality and an insolent contradiction in terms: that which is outside the possibility of choice is outside the province of morality.
If man is evil by birth, he has no will, no power to change it; if he has no will, he can be neither good nor evil, only an immoral robot.
To hold as man’s sin, a fact not open to his choice, is a mockery of whatever ‘morality’ should mean. To hold man’s nature as his sin is a mockery of nature. To punish him for a crime he committed before he was born is a mockery of justice. To hold him guilty in a matter where no innocence exists is a mockery of reason.
To destroy morality, nature, justice and reason by means of a single concept is a feat of evil hardly to be matched. Yet that is the root of the Christian code.
Christians egregiously hide behind the cowardly evasion that man is born with free will, but with a ‘tendency’ to evil.
A free will saddled with a tendency is like a game with loaded dice. It forces man to struggle through the effort of playing, to bear responsibility and pay for the game, but the decision is weighted in favor of a tendency that he had no power to escape.
If the tendency is of his choice, he cannot possess it at birth; if it is not of his choice, his will is not free.
And remember, this tendency was inherited, not assumed, like in the case of Adam and Eve. A&E opened up a veritable “Pandora’s Box” which was given directly to them by God Himself.
Further, knowing all the evils waiting within the hearts of men born and unborn – knowing full-well that men would “tend” to be evil- knowing that one day, God would have to destroy every living thing on Earth with a flood and “repent of ever making mankind” (Genesis 6:6)…
WHY DID GOD COMMAND EVIL MEN TO BE FRUITFUL AND MULTIPLY?
Sang-HA,
How would you like it if I cut and pasted your ass? Show me where I cut and pasted.
Bardmere,
You are apparently out of your league… This is a classic problem in theology.
Genevieve,
I was really wanting to give you credit, and when I began reading your Q, I was excited that maybe, someone understood the gist of it.
Alas, I afraid I cannot give you kudos. You seemed to have given it a little thought, tho…
Heaven Bound,
Why is it that every time I read your answer, I hear a light “buzzing” sound?
EDIT:
I typed II Cor 6:36, when I should have typed II Chron 6:36 – thanks to the a-hole who pointed it out so obtusely and mean-spirited down there.
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